Data Interpretation PYQs for UPSC (2011-2024) | Solved Questions & PDF Download

Master Data Interpretation (DI) for UPSC with solved Previous Year Questions (PYQs) from 2011 to 2024. This page provides detailed solutions, practice questions, and a free downloadable PDF to help you ace your UPSC preparation.

Why Data Interpretation Matters in UPSC?

Data Interpretation is a crucial part of the UPSC CSAT (Civil Services Aptitude Test). It tests your ability to:
  • Analyze tables, charts, and graphs.
  • Interpret data trends and patterns.
  • Solve complex numerical problems based on data.
This page breaks down the concepts and provides year-wise solved questions to help you master this topic.

Key Concepts in Data Interpretation

Before diving into the questions, let’s quickly revise the key concepts:
1. Types of Data Representation
  • Tables: Rows and columns of numerical data.
  • Bar Graphs: Represent data using rectangular bars.
  • Pie Charts: Show data as slices of a pie.
  • Line Graphs: Display data points connected by lines.
2. Key Skills
  • Percentage Calculations
  • Ratio and Proportion
  • Average, Median, and Mode
  • Trend Analysis

 


Year-Wise Data Interpretation PYQs (2011-2024)

Q1. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries.

 

Which one of them indicates the declining population? [CSAT 2011]

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Solution:

Declining population is when death rate is greater in number and birth rate is lower in number. The condition of age pyramid should be narrower base and narrower upper part.

Therefore pyramid (c) satisfies the condition

Hence option (c) is correct


Q2. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows.[CSAT 2011]

 

Which curve indicates the exponential growth?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Solution:

The exponential growth in population can be seen in the curve C between 1800 to 2000.  Curve A has seen increase and decrease in the growth, curve B is steadily increasing and curve D is almost steady for 1000years. Thus curve C shows exponential growth

Advance: Relate the curve with the graph of ex

Hence option (c) is correct


Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

The following pie-charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie-charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the two items that follow the charts.

 

Q3. Which of the two towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes? [CSAT 2011]

(a) Town A

(b) Town B

(c) Same in Town A and Town B

(d) No inference can be drawn

Solution:

As the population of both the towns A and B are not given so no inference can be made.

Hence option (d) is correct


Q4. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs? [CSAT 2011]

(a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A.

(b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.

(c) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B.

(d) No inference can be drawn.

Solution:

Total sum of % of patients in town A = 13 + 18 + 22 + 34 + 13 = 100 %

Total sum of % of patients in town B = 24 + 19 + 30 + 28 + 20 = 121 %

Thus, there are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B.

Hence option (b) is correct


Q5. Consider the following Velocity-Time graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks. [CSAT 2011]

 

With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.

(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.

(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time to

(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time to units.

Solution:

In accordance with the given figure Train B has travelled large displacement. However, the velocity of Train A and B are same where train B has varied acceleration and the area under the velocity time graph shows that the distance travelled by both trains are different but displacement remains the same(initial and final positions).

Hence option (d) is correct


Q6. Consider the following distance-time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B, and C running side by side for a 30 km race. [CSAT 2011]

 

With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements:

1. The race was won by A.

2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.

3. C ran very slowly from the beginning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:

In accordance with the given figure

Statement 1: The race was won by A.

The statement is correct as Time taken by A = 30 min, B = 35 min and C did not complete the race.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Statement 2: B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.

From the given graph B has taken less time to cover 25 km mark in comparison to A

Hence statement 2 is correct

Statement 3: C ran very slowly from the beginning.

From the given figure it can be concluded that C has taken less time to cover 25 km mark in comparison to A and B.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect


Q7. Consider the figure given below and answer the items that follows: In the figure shown above, OP 1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light falIing on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be

 

(a) Perpendicular to the direction S.

(b) At 45° to the direction S.

(c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(d) At 60° to the direction S.

Solution:

Given that,

OP1, and OPâ‚‚ are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other.

S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1.

Using the laws of reflection, the direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 can be solved.

Laws of reflection:

·         The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie on the same plane at the point of incidence.

·         The angle of Incidence and angle of reflection are equal.

 

With the given figure the incident ray SN1 will reflect on the mirror OP1 with reflected ray N1N2However, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection so angle of SN1 and  N1N2 are equal Similarly N2 S' is also equal. Thus the direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be opposite and parallel to the direction S.

Hence statement (c) is correct


Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure.

During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person's disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve

 

Q8. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection? [CSAT 2011]

(a) A only

(b) B only

(c) B and C

(d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase

Solution:

Incubation phase is time taken for an infection to develop after person is exposed to a disease causing infection. Therefore incubation is the initial stage.

Hence option (a) is correct


Q9. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection?[CSAT 2011]

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Solution:

After incubation stage the person starts showing symptoms. Thus curve A denotes incubation period and curve B denotes symptom stage.

Hence option (b) is correct


Q10. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief? [CSAT 2011]

(a) C

(b) D

(c) E

(d) The curve does not indicate the treatment

Solution:

Effective relief stage is when the disease causing bacteria starts decreasing. Therefore curve E denotes the stage of relief.

Hence option (c) is correct


Q11. Consider the following information regarding the performance of a class of 1000 students in four different tests:[CSAT 2012]

Tests

I

II

III

IV

Average marks

60

60

70

80

Range of marks

30 to 90

45 to 75

20 to 100

0 to 100

If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the following tests is her performance the best comparatively?

(a) Test I

(b) Test II

(c) Test III

(d) Test IV

Solution:

Given that,

Student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests

Thus from the above given information the student performance would be best in Test II as the range of marks is from 45 to 75 and she scored 74 out of 75

Hence option (b) is correct


Q12. Consider the following diagrams: x men, working at constant speed, do a certain job in y days. Which one of these diagrams shows the relation between x and y ? [CSAT 2013]

 

(a) Diagram I

(b) Diagram II

(c) Diagram III

(d) Diagram IV

Solution:

Given that,

x in the graph represents number of men working and y represents time taken to complete the work.

Now, as time taken to complete the work is inversely proportional to number of men working

x is inversely proportional to y

So, x = c/y (where c is constant), thus representing a hyperbola

Diagram IV is the correct representation.

Hence option (d) is correct


Q13. Four cars are hired at the rate of Rs. 6 per km plus the cost of diesel at Rs. 40 a litre. In this context, consider the details given in the following table:[CSAT 2013]

Car

Mileage (km/l)

Hours

Total payment (Rs.)

A

8

20

2120

B

10

25

1950

C

9

24

2064

D

11

22

1812

Which car maintained the maximum average speed?

(a) Car A

(b) Car B

(c) Car C

(d) Car D

Solution:

Given that,

Four cars are hired at the rate of Rs. 6 per km plus the cost of diesel at Rs. 40 a litre.

Now,

Let distance travelled by Car A, B, C and D be D1, D2, D3 and D4

For Car A:

Total payment = 2120 = 6 x D1 + 40 x (D1/8)

D1 = 2120/11

So average speed = D1/20 = 2120/(11 x 20) = 9.63

For Car B:

1950 = 6 x D2 + 40 x (D2/10)

D2 = 195

Average speed = D2/25 = 7.8

For Car C:

2064 = 6 x D3 + 40 x (D3/9)

D3 = (9 x 1032)/47 = 9288/47

Average speed = D3/24 = 8.23

For Car D:

6 x D4 + 40  x (D4/11) = 1812

D4 = 9966/53

Average speed = D4/22 = 8.54

The maximum average speed is of Car A = 9.63

Hence option (a) is correct


Direction for the following 5 (five) items

Study the two figures given below and answer the five items that follow :

 

 

 

 

Q14. How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35-44? [CSAT 2013]

(a) 18

(b) 16

(c) 14

(d) 12

Solution:

Given that,

From table 1:

Total physics professors male and female both = 32 + 8 = 40

From table 2:

% of physics professors in the age group of 35 - 44 = 40%

40% of 40 = 16

Hence option (b) is correct


Q15. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females? [CSAT 2013]

(a) Physics

(b) Mathematics

(c) Chemistry

(d) Economics

Solution:

From the table 1 :

Physics

Male Physics professors =  32

Female = 8

Ratio = 32 : 8 = 4 : 1

Mathematics

Male = 28

Female = 8

Ratio = 28 : 8 = 7 : 2

Chemistry

Male = 16

Female = 22

Ratio = 16 : 22 = 8 : 11

Economics

Male = 24

Female = 8

Ratio = 24 : 8 = 3 : 1

Therefore the highest ratio is in Physics discipline.

Hence option (a) is correct


Q16. What percentage of all Psychology professors are females? [CSAT 2013]

(a) 40%

(b) 50%

(c) 60%

(d) 70%

Solution:

From table 1:

Psychology professors male = 4

Female = 6

Total = 10

% of females = (6/10) x 100 = 60%

Hence option (c) is correct


Q17. If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25-34 equals 25% of all the Physics professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics professors in the age group 25-34?[CSAT 2013]

(a) 9

(b) 6

(c) 3

(d) 2

Solution:

From table 1 and 2:

Total physics professor = 40 (male + female)

%  in age group of 25 - 34 = 30%

30 % of 40 = 12

Total physics professors in age group of 25 - 34 = 12

Female professors are 25% in age group of 25 - 34 = 25% of 12 = 3

So, male professors = 12 - 3 = 9

Hence option (a) is correct


Q18. If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all the professors in the University, then what is the number of professors in the University? [CSAT 2013]

(a) 400

(b) 500

(c) 600

(d) 700

Solution:

Total Psychology professors = 10

Let total professors in university be x

2% of x  = 10

2x = 1000

x  = 500

Total professors in university = 500

Hence option (b) is correct


Directions for following 4(four) items

The following graph shows the average profit of two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs.) per year from the year 1995 to 2000.[CSAT 2014]

 

 

Q19. In which year is the average profit of A and B same?
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998

Solution:

YEARS

Average profit of A

Average profit of B

1995

3000

4000

1996

4000

4000

1997

5000

4000

1998

3400

4000

1999

4000

5000

2000

6000

5400

In 1996 the average profit of A and B are same.

Hence option (b) is correct


Q20. What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998?
(a) - Rs. 100
(b) - Rs. 1,000
(c) + Rs. 600
(d) - Rs. 300

Solution:

 

YEARS

Average profit of A

Average profit of B

1995

3000

4000

1996

4000

4000

1997

5000

4000

1998

3400

4000

1999

4000

5000

2000

6000

5400

The difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998 = 4000 - 3400 = + 600

Hence option (c) is correct


Q21. How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999?
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 1,000
(c) Rs. 1,500
(d) Rs. 2,000

Solution:

YEARS

Average profit of A

Average profit of B

1995

3000

4000

1996

4000

4000

1997

5000

4000

1998

3400

4000

1999

4000

5000

2000

6000

5400

The  average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999 = 6000 - 4000 = 2000

Rs. 2000 more profit

Hence option (d) is correct


Q22. What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000? 

(a) Non-increasing

(b) Non-decreasing

(c) Steady

(d) Fluctuating

Solution:

YEARS

Average profit of A

Average profit of B

1995

3000

4000

1996

4000

4000

1997

5000

4000

1998

3400

4000

1999

4000

5000

2000

6000

5400

The average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000 = 4000, 4000, 5000 and 5400 which is non-decreasing.

Hence option (b) is correct


Q23. The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects:[CSAT 2014]

Subject

Student A

 

Maximum marks

 

Student B

 

Maximum marks

 

English

 

60

 

100

 

80

 

150

 

Psychology

 

70

100

70

100

History

 

50

100

60

100

Sanskrit

 

30

50

15

25

The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is

(a) 2.5%

(c) 1.25%

(b) 13.75%

(d) Zero

Solution:

Given that,

Total marks obtained by student A = 70 + 60 + 50 + 30 = 210

Total maximum marks for A = 100 + 100 + 100 + 50 = 350

Total marks obtained by student B = 80 + 70 + 60 + 15 = 225

Total maximum marks for A = 150 + 100 + 100 + 25 = 375

Now,

% of marks obtained by A = (210/350) x 100 = 60%

% of marks obtained by B = (225/375)  x 100 = 60%

Thus the difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students A and B = 60 - 60 = 0

Hence option (d) is correct


Q24. The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years: [CSAT 2014]

Year

 

1992

 

1993

 

1994

 

1995

 

Population (in lakhs)

20

21

22

23

Income (in crores (Rs.)

1010

1111

1225

1345

Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the above data?

(a) Population increased by 5% or more every year.

(b) Income increased by 10% or more every year.

(c) Per capita income was always above Rs. 5,000,

(d) Per capita income was highest in 1994.

Solution:

Now arriving at the answers by going through the options

Option (a): Population increased by 5% or more every year

1992 - population is 20 lakhs

1993 - population is 21 lakhs

1994 - population is 22 lakhs

% of increase from 1992 - 1993 = (1/20) x 100 = 5 %

 % of increase from 1993 - 1994 = (1/21) x 100 = 4.76 %

Hence option (a) is incorrect

 

Option (b) : Income increased by 10% or more every year.

From 1992 to 93

Difference in income = 1111 - 1010 = 101

% change = (101/1010) x 100 = 10%

From 1993 to 94

Difference in income = 1225 - 1111 = 114

% change = (114/1111) x 100 = 10.26 %

From 1994 to 95

Difference in income = 1345-1225 = 120

% change =  120/1225 x 100 = 9.79%

Hence option (b) is incorrect

 

Option (c) : Per capita income was always above Rs. 5,000

Per capita income = total income/ total population

1992 :  1010 crore /20 lakhs = 5050

1993 : 1111 crore /21 lakhs = above 5000

1994 :  1225 crore /22 lakhs = above 5000

1995: 1345 crore /23 lakhs = above 5000

Hence option (c) is correct


Q25. The graph depicts the earnings of A and B over the period 2000 to 2010: [CSAT 2015]

 

 

From the graph, which one of the following can be concluded?

(a) On the average A earned more than B during this period.

(b) On the average B earned more than A during this period.

(c) The earnings of A and B were equal during this period.

(d) The earning of A were less as compared to B during this period.

Solution:

Considering the graph, A's earnings have been more for 7 years than B i.e from 2000 to 2007

So on an average A's earning is more than B

Hence option (a) is correct


Q26. Year-wise variation of the price of a certain commodity is shown in the following graph: [CSAT 2015]

 

The price of the commodity in the year 1990:

(a) Must have been Rs. 10.

(b) Must have been Rs. 12.

(c) Must have been anywhere between Rs. 10 and Rs. 20.

(d) is higher than that in the year 1991.

Solution:

From the given graph it can be concluded that the price of the commodity would be between Rs. 10 to Rs.20 in the year 1990.

Hence option (c) is correct


Q27. The proportion of expenditure on various items by two families A and B are represented in the following Bar Charts: [CSAT 2015]

 

From these charts, we can conclude that

(a) Family A spent more money on food than Family B.

(b) Family B spent more money on food than Family A.

(c) Family A and Family B spent the same amount on food.

(d) The expenditure on food by Family A and Family B cannot be compared.

Solution:

From Table 1 and 2 we can conclude that

Family A spent on food is 50% of the total expenditure

Total expenditure of family A  = 20000

So, 50% of 20000 = Rs. 10000

Family B spent on food is 10% of the total expenditure

Total expenditure of family B  = 100000

So, 10% of 100000 = Rs. 10000

Thus both family have same expenditure on food

Hence option (c) is correct


Q28. If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode then the distribution is
(a) symmetric
(b) skewed to the right
(c) neither symmetric nor skewed
(d) skewed to the left

Solution:

If distribution is symmetric then Mean = Median = Mode

However, for Mean < Median < Mode it is skewed to the left

Hence option (d) is correct


Q29. The figure drawn below gives the velocity graphs of two vehicles A and B. The straight line OKP represents the velocity of vehicle A at any instant, whereas the horizontal straight line CKD represents the velocity of vehicle B at any instant. In the figure, D is the point where perpendicular from P meets the horizontal line CKD such that PD= 1/2 LD :

 

What is the ratio between the distances covered by vehicles A and B in the time interval OL?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 1

Solution:

Given that,

The straight line OKP represents the velocity of vehicle A at any instant,

The horizontal straight line CKD represents the velocity of vehicle B at any instant.

D is the point where perpendicular from P meets the horizontal line CKD such that PD= 1/2 LD

Now,

Displacement of vehicle A = Area of triangle OPL

(1/2) x LP x OL.......(i)

LP = PD + LD......(ii)

(1/2) x (PD + LD) x OL.......(iii)

Also, PD= 1/2 LD

So, (1/2) x (1/2 LD + LD) x OL = (3/4) x LD x OL......(iv)

Displacement of vehicle B =  area of rectangle OLDC = OL x LD .....(v)

Ratio of vehicle A and B from equation (iv) and (v) = ((3/4) x LD x OL)/ OL x LD = 3 : 4

Hence option (c) is correct


Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

The following three items are based on the graph given below which shows imports of three different types of steel over a period of six months of a year. Study the graph and answer the three items that follow.

 

The figures in the brackets indicate the average cost per ton over six months period.

 

Q30. By how much (measured in thousands of tons) did the import of sheet steel exceed the import of coil steel in the first three months of the year? [CSAT 2018]

(a) 11

(b) 15

(c) 19

(d) 23

Solution:

Given that,

Total imports of sheet steel in first 3 months i.e Jan, Feb and March of the year = (40 + 37 + 36) thousand tons = 113 thousand tons

Total imports of coil steel in first three months i.e Jan, Feb and March of the year =  (30 + 33 + 31) thousand tons = 94 thousand tons

Now,

113 - 94 = 19 thousand tons

Sheet steel is 19 thousand tons more than coil sheets.

Hence option (c) is correct


Q31. What was the approximate total value (in $) of sheet steel imported over the six months period? [CSAT 2018]

(a) 45,555

(b) 50,555

(c) 55,550

(d) 65,750

Solution:

Given that,

Total import of sheet steel in 6 months = (40 + 37 + 36 + 36 + 34 + 34) = 217 thousand tons

Total value = 217 x 256 = 55552

Approximately = 55550

Hence option (c) is correct


Q32. What was the approximate ratio of sheet steel and scrap steel imports in the first three months of the year?

[CSAT 2018]

(a) 1:1

(b) 1.2: 1

(c) 1.4:1

(d) 1.6: 1

Solution:

Given that,

Total imports of sheet steel in first 3 months i.e Jan, Feb and March of the year = (40 + 37 + 36) thousand tons = 113 thousand tons

Total imports of scrap steel in first three months i.e Jan, Feb and March of the year =  (32 + 34 + 32) thousand tons = 98 thousand tons

Now,

Ratio = 113/98 = 1.2 : 1

Hence option (b) is correct


Q33. Consider the following graph: [CSAT 2018]

 

Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the graph given above?

(a) On 1st June, the actual progress of work was less than expected.

(b) The actual rate of progress of work was the greatest during the month of August.

(c) The work was actually completed before the expected time.

(d) During the period from 1st April to 1st September, at no time was the actual progress more than the expected progress.

Solution:

From the given graph

The actual progress is  has been more than the expected progress in the month of August.

Thus, During the period from 1st April to 1st September, at no time was the actual progress more than the expected progress is incorrect

Hence option (d) is correct


Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Consider the following graph in which the birth rate and death rate of a country are given, and answer the two items that follow.

 

 

Q34. Looking at the graph, it can be inferred that from 1990 to 2010 [CSAT 2018]

(a) population growth rate has increased.

(b) population growth rate has decreased.

(c) growth rate of population has remained stable.

(d) population growth rate shows no trend.

Solution:

From the given graph it can be concluded that in the initial stage the birth rate and death rates are decreasing and thereby in the following stages it stabilizes. Thus it does not follow any trend.

Hence option (d) is correct


Q35. With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements considering 1970 as base year: [CSAT 2018]

1. Population has stabilized after 35 years.

2. Population growth rate has stabilized after 35 years.

3. Death rate has fallen by 10% in the first 10 years.

4. Birth rate has stabilized after 35 years.

Which of the above are the most logical and rational statements that can be made from the above graph?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Solution:

The population growth rate has stabilized after 35 years from 2005 to 2010 and also the birth rate has stabilized after 35 years in the duration of 2005 to 2010 and thereafter remained constant.

So, statement 2 and 4 are correct

Hence option (d) is correct


Q36. Average hourly earnings per year (E) of the workers in a firm are represented in figures A and B as follows:

[CSAT 2018]

 

From the figures, it is observed that the

(a) values of E are different.

(b) ranges (i.e., the difference between the maximum and the minimum) of E are different.

(c) slopes of the graphs are same.

(d) rates of increase of E are different.

Solution:

Values of E from graph A

2013 = 20, 2014 = 25, 2015 = 30, 2016 = 35, 2017 = 40

Ranges of Max and Min = 40 - 20 = 20

Values of E from graph B

2013 = 20, 2014 = 25, 2015 = 30, 2016 = 35, 2017 = 40

Ranges of Max and Min = 40 - 20 = 20

Thus the slopes of both the graphs are same

Hence option (c) is correct


Q37. Consider the following figures A and B :

 

 

The manufacturing cost and projected sales for a product are shown in the above figures A and B respectively. What is the minimum number of pieces that should be manufactured to avoid a loss? [CSAT 2018]

(a) 2000

(b) 2500

(c) 3000

(d) 3500

Solution:

From graph A and B it can be concluded that

On 0 pieces the cost of production = Rs. 500000

On 1000 pieces the cost of production = Rs. 600000

On 2000 pieces the cost of production = Rs. 700000

On 3000 pieces the cost of production = Rs. 800000

Now,

The SP of 1000 pieces = 400 x 1000 = Rs. 400000

The SP of 2000 pieces = 350 x 2000 = Rs. 700000

The SP of 3000 pieces = 300 x 3000 = Rs. 900000

Thus with 2000 pieces the minimum loss = 0

Hence option (a) is correct


Q38. Consider the following graphs. The curves in the graphs indicate different age groups in the populations of two countries A and B over a period of few decades:

 

 

With reference to the above graphs, which of the following are the most logical and rational inferences that can be made? [CSAT 2018]

1. Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased.

2. By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B.

3. In the next two decades, the work-force relative to its total population will increase in country B as compared to country A.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:

Statement 1: Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased.

Dependency ratio = Non-working population/ working population

Working population = 15 - 64 years age

Non-working = 64 and above

Thus statement 1 is correct by analyzing the graph

Statement 2: By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B.

The Dependency ratio of A is more than B thus statement 2 is incorrect

By eliminating statement 2 the answer is 1 and 3

Hence option (c) is correct


Q39. The graph given below indicates the changes in key policy rates made by Central Bank several times in a year:

[CSAT 2018]

 

 

Which one of the following can be the most likely reason for the Central Bank for such an action?

(a) Encouraging foreign investment.

(b) Increasing the liquidity.

(c) Encouraging both public and private savings.

(d) Anti-inflationary stance.

Solution:

From the graph it can be concluded that continuously rising repo rate leads to Anti-inflationary stance. This stance is taken to suck out liquidity from the market.

Hence option (d) is correct

 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

The following table gives the GDP growth rate and Tele-density data of different States of a country in a particular year. Study the table and answer the two items that follow.

 


Q40. With reference to the above table, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made? [CSAT 2018]

1. Higher per capita income is generally associated with higher Tele-density.

2. Higher GDP growth rate always ensures higher per capita income.

3. Higher GDP growth rate does not necessarily ensure higher Tele-density.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Solution:

Statement 1: Higher per capita income is generally associated with higher Tele-density.

However, from state 2 and state 3 the given relationship is inverse. As the above mention statement is general in character. thus, the statement is generally correct.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Statement 2: Higher GDP growth rate always ensures higher per capita income.

State 15 and 16 shows higher GDP growth rate but less per capita income

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Statement 3: Higher GDP growth rate does not necessarily ensure higher Tele-density.

As shown in state 4

Hence statement 3 is correct

Hence option c is correct.


Q41. With reference to the above table, the following assumptions have been made: [CSAT 2018]

1. Nowadays, prosperity of an already high performing State cannot be sustained without making further large investments in its telecom infrastructure.

2. Nowadays, a very high Tele-density is the most essential condition for promoting the business and economic growth in a State. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Statement 1: Nowadays, prosperity of an already high performing State cannot be sustained without making further large investments in its telecom infrastructure.

Considering two states 4 and 8 the tele-density is low but GDP is high. Thus statement 1 is incorrect

Statement 2: . Nowadays, a very high Tele-density is the most essential condition for promoting the business and economic growth in a State.

Considering state 7 the Tele-density is not the most essential condition for promoting the business and economic growth in a State.

Statement 2 is incorrect


Q42. The following graph indicates the composition of our tax revenue for a period of two decades: [CSAT 2018]

 

With reference to the above graph, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made?

1. During the given period, the revenue from Direct Taxes as percentage of gross tax revenue has increased while that of Indirect Taxes decreased.

2. The trend in the revenue from Excise Duty demonstrates that the growth of manufacturing sector has been negative during the given period.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution:

Indirect tax is revenue from excise, customs and service whereas direct tax includes revenue from corporate tax and personal income tax

Now,

1. During the given period, the revenue from Direct Taxes as percentage of gross tax revenue has increased while that of Indirect Taxes decreased.

From the given graph it can be concluded that indirect tax as a percentage of total tax is decreasing with time

Hence statement 1 is correct

2. The trend in the revenue from Excise Duty demonstrates that the growth of manufacturing sector has been negative during the given period.

The inference on growth of manufacturing sector cannot be predicted as the data is not sufficient.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect


Q43. Consider the following data: [CSAT 2020]

 

For which period was the natural growth rate maximum?

(a) 1911-1921

(b) 1941-1951

(c) 1961-1971

(d) 1971-1981

Solution:

Natural growth rate = Birth rate - Death rate

Now,

1911 - 1921 = 48.1 - 35.5 = 12.6

1921 - 1931= 46.4 - 36.3 = 10.1

1931 - 1941= 45.2 - 31.2 = 14

1941 - 1951= 39.9 - 27.4 = 12.5

1951 - 1961= 41.7 - 22.8 = 18.9

1961 - 1971= 41.1 - 18.9 = 22.2

1971 - 1981= 37.1 - 14.8 = 22.3

Natural growth rate is maximum in 1971-1981 = 22.3

Hence option (d) is correct


Q44. Consider the following data: [CSAT 2021]

 

Who is the fastest run scorer in the Test Match?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Solution:

From the given data

Strike rate of A:

Total runs scored = 61 + 14 = 75

Total balls faced = 99 + 76 = 175

Strike rate = (75/175) x 100 = 42.86

Strike rate of B:

Total runs scored = 5 + 50 = 55

Total balls faced = 12 + 85 = 97

Strike rate = (55/97) x 100 = 56.7

Strike rate of C:

Total runs scored = 15 + 20 = 35

Total balls faced = 75 + 50 = 125

Strike rate = (35/125) x 100 = 28

Strike rate of D:

Total runs scored = 13 + 12 = 25

Total balls faced = 55 + 50 = 105

Strike rate = (25/105) x 100 = 23.81

Therefore the highest strike rate is of Player B

Hence statement (b) is correct


Q45. A pie diagram shows the percentage distribution of proteins, water and other dry elements in the human body. Given that proteins correspond to 16% and water corresponds to 70%. If both proteins and the other dry elements correspond to p\% then what is the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram? [CSAT 2021]

(a) 54°

(b) 96°

(c) 108°

(d) 120°

Solution:

Given that

Water is 70%

Proteins is 16%

Now,

Remaining dry elements = 100 - 70 - 16 = 14%

Total proteins and dry elements = 14 + 16 = 30%

So, central angle = (30/100) x 360 = 108 degrees

Hence option (c) is correct


Q46. A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D and E in a household. If B, C, D and E correspond to 90°, 50°, 45° and 75° respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A? [CSAT 2022]

(a) 112/9

(b) 125/6

(c) 155/9

(d) 250/9

Solution:

Total angle in a pie = 360 degree

Total angle of B, C, D and E = 90 + 50 + 45 + 75 = 260 degrees

Angle of A = 360 - 260 = 100 degrees

% of expenditure = (100/360) x 100 = 250/9

Hence option (d) is correct


ANSWER KEY
1.      C
2.      C
3.      D
4.      B
5.      D
6.      B
7.      C
8.      A
9.      B
10.  C
11.  B
12.  D
13.  A
14.  B
15.  A
16.  C
17.  A
18.  B
19.  B
20.  C
21.  D
22.  B
23.  D
24.  C
25.  A
26.  C
27.  C
28.  D
29.  C
30.  C
31.  C
32.  B
33.  D
34.  D
35.  D
36.  C
37.  A
38.  C
39.  D
40.  C
41.  D
42.  A
43.  D
44.  B
45.  C
46.  D